Back on 1.01

[Kai]

Would you mind explaining what your explanation of question 5 has to do with hedge funds?

Just companies that manage money, a lot of money. Have you ever heard about "trading"?

Yeah Derek, why don't you look up the term "trading" on your Wikipedia page, and give this man a proper answer for once!

[FabioC13]

I'll give you comprehensive answers to your 5 questions.

1. I see images of trading ladders with unmatched lay bets.

2. Everybody who backs at 1.01 does it for individual reasons. They could do it because they think it's a certain winner, closing a losing trade, by mistake, because they didn't know the difference between backing and laying, etc.

3. Some people will have a strategy that involves backing at 1.01 and some won't.

4. It's profitable if the bet wins, it's not if it loses.

5. The question "Hedge funds?" doesn't make any sense, which may explain why it hasn't been answered. Perhaps you need to make more effort to explain exactly what you mean?

HiDerek,
finally, after 4 threads pages, someone trying to explain me thises screenshots. So:

1. Ok, but it's weird only for me that we have almost exactly the same amounts for both teams?

2. Perfect, many reasons, but from your point of view, looking at first screen (Inter-Fiorentina) what's the possible reason in this case? Any idea?

3. Fine.

4. Really? (You really thinks was necessary write the point 4?)

5. Ok, I try to put more effort: anyone can please explain me which are the possibile reasons to have almost the SAME (S-A-M-E) amount of money laying both team in all three screenshots at odds starting from 1.05 to 1.01? Are the going to back on live, maybe at 1.08 or 1.07, and want to stay there already to lay and not queue? Are the going to lay waiting for some late gols? Are they doing something different? Thanks

1. Most likely the bulk of the money is from one person and he placed the same amounts on both teams.

2. Same as the possible reason in any case. It could be any of those reasons or another reason. If you want to identify the exact reason you need to see a clairvoyant.

4. If it wasn't necessary to write that point why did you ask the question? You're basically asking if it's profitable to back an individual 1.01. You didn't specify a criteria like all 1.01s, football 1.01s, English Premiership, etc.

5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that. Perhaps he intended to trade at slightly higher prices if the price bounces upwards, but that's just a complete guess.

Would you mind explaining what your explanation of question 5 has to do with hedge funds?

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"
and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.
Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

[Anbell]

HiDerek,
finally, after 4 threads pages, someone trying to explain me thises screenshots. So:

1. Ok, but it's weird only for me that we have almost exactly the same amounts for both teams?

2. Perfect, many reasons, but from your point of view, looking at first screen (Inter-Fiorentina) what's the possible reason in this case? Any idea?

3. Fine.

4. Really? (You really thinks was necessary write the point 4?)

5. Ok, I try to put more effort: anyone can please explain me which are the possibile reasons to have almost the SAME (S-A-M-E) amount of money laying both team in all three screenshots at odds starting from 1.05 to 1.01? Are the going to back on live, maybe at 1.08 or 1.07, and want to stay there already to lay and not queue? Are the going to lay waiting for some late gols? Are they doing something different? Thanks

1. Most likely the bulk of the money is from one person and he placed the same amounts on both teams.

2. Same as the possible reason in any case. It could be any of those reasons or another reason. If you want to identify the exact reason you need to see a clairvoyant.

4. If it wasn't necessary to write that point why did you ask the question? You're basically asking if it's profitable to back an individual 1.01. You didn't specify a criteria like all 1.01s, football 1.01s, English Premiership, etc.

5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that. Perhaps he intended to trade at slightly higher prices if the price bounces upwards, but that's just a complete guess.

Would you mind explaining what your explanation of question 5 has to do with hedge funds?

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"
and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.
Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

It was answered in the first reply: "They are not back bets"

[FabioC13]

1. Most likely the bulk of the money is from one person and he placed the same amounts on both teams.

2. Same as the possible reason in any case. It could be any of those reasons or another reason. If you want to identify the exact reason you need to see a clairvoyant.

4. If it wasn't necessary to write that point why did you ask the question? You're basically asking if it's profitable to back an individual 1.01. You didn't specify a criteria like all 1.01s, football 1.01s, English Premiership, etc.

5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that. Perhaps he intended to trade at slightly higher prices if the price bounces upwards, but that's just a complete guess.

Would you mind explaining what your explanation of question 5 has to do with hedge funds?

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"
and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.
Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

It was answered in the first reply: "They are not back bets"

I f you read the whole threads you probably find that I correct my question.
But it's not the point, it's not the answer.
As I said before, why people waste time? Really, I can't find a reason.

[gazuty]

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

Well to be fair, Dallas actually did provide the answer.

But, here you go - a person (or perhaps more than one) have a tiered automation applied on market opening to lay by liablity against 1.01, 1.02 etc. Or a person (or perhaps more than one) has the time to manually enter these on either side of the book and again they load up on 1.01 and scale back on 1.02, 1.03 etc. The person or persons might consider it a ripe market or apply to that rule to lots of markets.

However, what I say might not be the answer, it is an educated hunch.

///

There might be a bit of language barrier between you, me and perhaps other forum members and possibly cultural barriers becasue in some of your responses you appear less than gracious and sometimes downright indignant towards a genuine response. Vinegar, honey and all that.

[Derek27]

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"

For fuck's sake. The reason nobody has a clear answer to your question is that there are millions of possibilities and only the person who placed the money can answer that! That should be obvious!! Do you think we're all clairvoyant???

and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.

You've obviously got a short memory!

HiDerek,
finally, after 4 threads pages, someone trying to explain me thises screenshots. So:

You were pleased enough with my response to ask another 5 questions!!

Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

A very good question. It's called politeness and trying to help. You are absolutely right though, I have better things to do than answer your questions and I have answered some of them if you look back on the thread. I don't know why you're so stroppy about somebody giving you their time.

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

As I said above, only the person who placed that order will know, others can only guess.

[FabioC13]

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

Well to be fair, Dallas actually did provide the answer.

But, here you go - a person (or perhaps more than one) have a tiered automation applied on market opening to lay by liablity against 1.01, 1.02 etc. Or a person (or perhaps more than one) has the time to manually enter these on either side of the book and again they load up on 1.01 and scale back on 1.02, 1.03 etc. The person or persons might consider it a ripe market or apply to that rule to lots of markets.

However, what I say might not be the answer, it is an educated hunch.

///

There might be a bit of language barrier between you, me and perhaps other forum members and possibly cultural barriers becasue in some of your responses you appear less than gracious and sometimes downright indignant towards a genuine response. Vinegar, honey and all that.

I thinks Dallas wasn't answering to me, but to Derek27: "During a 24 hr period in the recent US Open just there was 2 x 1.01 and a 1.02 or 1.03 turned over within 8 matches

Countless number hit it and bounce out a various amount of ticks

Queue position still important as you'll often be behind 6 figures when the player nears 1.01"

About your answer, you said "a person". How is possible that a single person put exactly the same amount in a football game on both teams, in a lot of matches? Is it a rich person with a super bot? A lot of person in the same time put the same amount of money in the same matches? Not probably I think.

I am really gracious about all your efforts, but sometimes, and probably I am wrong, you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of trying to find an explanation.

[FabioC13]

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"

For fuck's sake. The reason nobody has a clear answer to your question is that there are millions of possibilities and only the person who placed the money can answer that! That should be obvious!! Do you think we're all clairvoyant???

and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.

You've obviously got a short memory!

HiDerek,
finally, after 4 threads pages, someone trying to explain me thises screenshots. So:

You were pleased enough with my response to ask another 5 questions!!

Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

A very good question. It's called politeness and trying to help. You are absolutely right though, I have better things to do than answer your questions and I have answered some of them if you look back on the thread. I don't know why you're so stroppy about somebody giving you their time.

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

As I said above, only the person who placed that order will know, others can only guess.

Hey, calm down, take a chamomile and we try again.

I don't think you are a clairvoyant, but I think it would be interesting try to find an answer on my question.

Am I the only person here that would like to know why we have the same amount of money on laying both teams in a lot of football match?
Really? Am I the only one?

I mean, we are talking about millions, a huge amount of money. And it happens on a lot of games, basically all the matches of most important leagues.

Am I the only one so curious about that? I don't think so...

[Derek27]

So, given that that you don't have a clear answer about my question
"5. There are a million reasons, no, there is an infinite number of reasons why somebody might do that"

For fuck's sake. The reason nobody has a clear answer to your question is that there are millions of possibilities and only the person who placed the money can answer that! That should be obvious!! Do you think we're all clairvoyant???

and given that you seems more focused on criticise my question instead of try to answer.

You've obviously got a short memory!

HiDerek,
finally, after 4 threads pages, someone trying to explain me thises screenshots. So:

You were pleased enough with my response to ask another 5 questions!!

Why do you waste your time responding on my topic?
I mean, there are a lot of better solution on how to spend your time, eating, walking, travelling, sex, drink, read a book, cooking, swipe on tinder, climb...

A very good question. It's called politeness and trying to help. You are absolutely right though, I have better things to do than answer your questions and I have answered some of them if you look back on the thread. I don't know why you're so stroppy about somebody giving you their time.

PS: Btw, five pages or thread, around 6 days since I opened it, and nobody was able to explain me what happens in those file attache on my first message.

As I said above, only the person who placed that order will know, others can only guess.

Hey, calm down, take a chamomile and we try again.

I don't think you are a clairvoyant, but I think it would be interesting try to find an answer on my question.

Am I the only person here that would like to know why we have the same amount of money on laying both teams in a lot of football match?
Really? Am I the only one?

I mean, we are talking about millions, a huge amount of money. And it happens on a lot of games, basically all the matches of most important leagues.

Am I the only one so curious about that? I don't think so...

I think you probably are to be honest. I've noticed that trend frequently and never batted an eyelid.

One likely reason is people using a lay the field strategy. Just like horse racing where somebody my lay every horse in the field at 1.3 or whatever. If you successfully lay a team at 1.01 you've got nothing to lose laying the other at the same price, so perhaps lots of people lay both teams for the same money, which will add up to similar values.

[gazuty]

About your answer, you said "a person". How is possible that a single person put exactly the same amount in a football game on both teams, in a lot of matches?

Did you see the word "automation"?

And what's more here is one of my automations - that I actually use and has made me plenty - ryhmes with 20/20.

Lay spread liability .66.baf

[FabioC13]

For fuck's sake. The reason nobody has a clear answer to your question is that there are millions of possibilities and only the person who placed the money can answer that! That should be obvious!! Do you think we're all clairvoyant???


You've obviously got a short memory!

You were pleased enough with my response to ask another 5 questions!!

A very good question. It's called politeness and trying to help. You are absolutely right though, I have better things to do than answer your questions and I have answered some of them if you look back on the thread. I don't know why you're so stroppy about somebody giving you their time.


As I said above, only the person who placed that order will know, others can only guess.

Hey, calm down, take a chamomile and we try again.

I don't think you are a clairvoyant, but I think it would be interesting try to find an answer on my question.

Am I the only person here that would like to know why we have the same amount of money on laying both teams in a lot of football match?
Really? Am I the only one?

I mean, we are talking about millions, a huge amount of money. And it happens on a lot of games, basically all the matches of most important leagues.

Am I the only one so curious about that? I don't think so...

I think you probably are to be honest. I've noticed that trend frequently and never batted an eyelid.

One likely reason is people using a lay the field strategy. Just like horse racing where somebody my lay every horse in the field at 1.3 or whatever. If you successfully lay a team at 1.01 you've got nothing to lose laying the other at the same price, so perhaps lots of people lay both teams for the same money, which will add up to similar values.

Hi Derek, this is a potential reason, yes. So basically they lay both sides but the only way to have profit is when there's a really late goal, otherwise it's just a small loss? Am I wrong?
Thanks

[Derek27]

Hi Derek, this is a potential reason, yes. So basically they lay both sides but the only way to have profit is when there's a really late goal, otherwise it's just a small loss? Am I wrong?
Thanks

Yes, it doesn't have to be a late goal. A free-kick, break, ball booted up the field can move the price out a few ticks to 1.05 and then they might trade out. Or they might just be booking a place at the front of the queue and cancelling the order later if they don't want it.

[FabioC13]

About your answer, you said "a person". How is possible that a single person put exactly the same amount in a football game on both teams, in a lot of matches?

Did you see the word "automation"?

And what's more here is one of my automations - that I actually use and has made me plenty - ryhmes with 20/20.


Lay spread liability .66.baf

Yes of course they use an automation.
Thanks for share your automation, I opened it and I try to understand how it works. Not so easy for me, I am a newbie

[Dallas]

Ill have another go

No one can ever know for sure why any bet is placed at any time, ie, at 15:45:32 there was £1654 placed on the fav at kempton at the best price, who placed the bet/s, how many smaller bets/people made up that figure and to answer your question what is the exact reason everyone did at this exact time is impossible to know

The same goes for every bet that gets placed, however for those laying at 1.01 - 1.03 as soon as a market opens you can be 99.9% certain its
A) Done by bots likely even multiple bots (hence you always have the same figure across multiple selections/sport types)
B) Those first early bets are to catch a fat finger pre-off as the markets are forming

Laying at 1.01 in that first scenario has zero risk and only a massive upside, with just a £10'000 bank (and that's very small among serious top traders) you can lay every selection using a £200 stake in 5'000 markets at a time

(Thats what your screenshot is showing)

As the market begins to form most of these early bets will usually be cancelled and put back into other freshly opened markets and new bets will begin to appear at those odds and take there place with these people now looking at different strategies, this could now be for in-play queue position, fat finger still in illiquid markets (depending on sport), or now even as some sort of a lay strategy at those odds.

As others have said those answer's have been given to you multiple times already over the last several pages

[FabioC13]

Ill have another go

No one can ever know for sure why any bet is placed at any time, ie, at 15:45:32 there was £1654 placed on the fav at kempton at the best price, who placed the bet/s, how many smaller bets/people made up that figure and to answer your question what is the exact reason everyone did at this exact time is impossible to know

The same goes for every bet that gets placed, however for those laying at 1.01 - 1.03 as soon as a market opens you can be 99.9% certain its
A) Done by bots likely even multiple bots (hence you always have the same figure across multiple selections/sport types)
B) Those first early bets are to catch a fat finger pre-off as the markets are forming

Laying at 1.01 in that first scenario has zero risk and only a massive upside, with just a £10'000 bank (and that's very small among serious top traders) you can lay every selection using a £200 stake in 5'000 markets at a time

(Thats what your screenshot is showing)

As the market begins to form most of these early bets will usually be cancelled and put back into other freshly opened markets and new bets will begin to appear at those odds and take there place with these people now looking at different strategies, this could now be for in-play queue position, fat finger still in illiquid markets (depending on sport), or now even as some sort of a lay strategy at those odds.

As others have said those answer's have been given to you multiple times already over the last several pages

Thanks for your answer Dallas, I probably read something similar in the previous replies, but it's more clear and accurate.

So, in the A scenario they place lay bets at a such small odds looking for any jump on a higher odd?
Do they plan an offset bet in the bot to get some profit?
Sorry, I know it seems a really stupid question, but I would really try to understand everything about these kind of strategies.

Or there's any other way to have some profit after allocate this huge amount of money on it?

Thanks again for your patience