Back to Lay
Consider the drop as 'percentage'.SOOTY wrote: ↑Sat Jan 29, 2022 4:40 pmHi….can anyone please explain to me how the profit from a Back to Lay is very different depending on the entry price even if the amount payed out at is still the same.
For instance
£100 stakes 5% comm
Back 3.00
Lay 2.00
Profit 47.50
Back 6.00
Lay 5.00
Profit 19
Back 12.00
Lay 11.00
Profit 8.64
On each instance I’m only taking ‘1’ out of the price…so trying to lock in an even shot if you like but the net profit drops the higher up the ladder you do this which doesn’t make sense to me.
If we count them as apples and oranges no matter how many apples and oranges I originally buy, I would have thought that as long as I only sell 1 less than I bought I’d still have one ‘free’ apple or orange?..
Yes I’m aware through different price bands the amount of ticks in between alters but still can’t get my head round how the end result changes.
Confused.
From 12.00 to 11.00 - Less than 10%
From 3.00 to 2.00 - 33%
I'll give you a discount of £200 and I have 2 products.
1. A car worth £30.000
2. A mobile phone worth £500
So you will have a chance to buy the car for £29.800 or the phone for £300. Which one would you buy? Or which bargain sounds better?
1. A car worth £30.000
2. A mobile phone worth £500
So you will have a chance to buy the car for £29.800 or the phone for £300. Which one would you buy? Or which bargain sounds better?
I see the percentage angle your going for with this example but at the end of the day you still only own £300 worth of x y or z.
I always thought that Betfair trading was the same as the stock market but it’s not is it because if you buy 1000 Vodafone shares and sell 900 you will own 100 shares. Likewise if you bought 25000 and sold 24900…you’d still own 100 shares and any percentage angle wouldn’t have anything to do with it.
I always thought that Betfair trading was the same as the stock market but it’s not is it because if you buy 1000 Vodafone shares and sell 900 you will own 100 shares. Likewise if you bought 25000 and sold 24900…you’d still own 100 shares and any percentage angle wouldn’t have anything to do with it.
You don't own it.
If I stake £1000 @ odds of 5 then my risk is £1000 but my profit potential is £4000 (£4k back + £1k initial comes to the odds of 5)
If I then lay @ odds of 4 then my risk is £4000 (original stake of £1k plus £3k additional risk)
Net these off against one another £5k - £4k gives me £1k net position which you can then hedge and guarantee a green against each selection
May I suggest the following to you
https://betting.betfair.com/how-to-use- ... er-guides/
If I stake £1000 @ odds of 5 then my risk is £1000 but my profit potential is £4000 (£4k back + £1k initial comes to the odds of 5)
If I then lay @ odds of 4 then my risk is £4000 (original stake of £1k plus £3k additional risk)
Net these off against one another £5k - £4k gives me £1k net position which you can then hedge and guarantee a green against each selection
May I suggest the following to you
https://betting.betfair.com/how-to-use- ... er-guides/
Very true odPaul…..so sure the same should apply if you apply the same math at .12,? Which is my point but it’s not the case. The bigger the odds you apply this trade the lower the profit which is where I’m confused. The rule should work if backing and laying all the way up the ladder to 1000 but it doesn’t.
